Problem 11145
(American Mathematical Monthly, Vol.112, April 2005) Proposed by J. Zinn (USA).
Find the leastc such that if n ≥ 1 and a1, . . . , an > 0 then
n
X
k=1
k Pk
j=11/aj
≤ c
n
X
k=1
ak.
Solution proposed by Roberto Tauraso, Dipartimento di Matematica, Universit`a di Roma “Tor Vergata”, via della Ricerca Scientifica, 00133 Roma, Italy.
Let hk = k/Pk
j=11/aj i. e. the harmonic mean of a1, . . . , ak. If we take ak= 1/k we have that
n
X
k=1
hk =
n
X
k=1
k 1 + · · · + k =
n
X
k=1
2 k + 1 = 2
Hn− n n + 1
where Hn =Pn
k=11/k is the n-th harmonic number. Hence
c ≥
n
X
k=1
hk
! /
n
X
k=1
ak
!
= 2
1 − n
(n + 1)Hn
,
and, since Hn goes to infinity, the above inequality holds for every positive integer n only if the constant c is greater or equal to 2.
Now we prove that it actually holds for c = 2 and therefore this is just the best constant. Since h2k+ h2k−1≥ 2hkhk−1
then
hk− h2k 2ak
= hk−h2k 2
k
hk −k − 1 hk−1
= hk
1 −k
2
+k − 1 2
h2k hk−1
≥ hk
1 − k
2
+k − 1
2 (2hk− hk−1) = 1
2(khk− (k − 1)hk−1) . Summing up for k = 1, . . . , n (let h0= 0) we find that
n
X
k=1
hk−1 2
n
X
k=1
h2k ak ≥ 1
2
n
X
k=1
(khk− (k − 1)hk−1) = 1
2nhn≥ 0 hence
2
n
X
k=1
hk ≥
n
X
k=1
hk
√ak
2 .
After multipling byPn
k=1ak, by Cauchy’s inequality we obtain
2
n
X
k=1
ak·
n
X
k=1
hk≥
n
X
k=1
(√ ak)2·
n
X
k=1
hk
√ak
2
≥
n
X
k=1
hk
!2
that is
2
n
X
k=1
ak ≥
n
X
k=1
hk.
It is interesting to remark that the proposed inequality is a variation (take p = −1) of a result due to G. H. Hardy (see for example the book Inequalities of Hardy-Littlewood-Polya): for p > 1
n
X
k=1
1 k
k
X
j=1
a1j/p
p
≤
p p − 1
p n
X
k=1
ak.