Problem 11333
(American Mathematical Monthly, Vol.114, December 2007) Proposed by P. F. Refolio (Spain).
Show that
∞
Y
n=2
n2− 1 n2
2(n2−1) n + 1 n − 1
n!
= π.
Solution proposed by Roberto Tauraso, Dipartimento di Matematica, Universit`a di Roma “Tor Vergata”, via della Ricerca Scientifica, 00133 Roma, Italy.
First we consider the finite telescopic product
N
Y
n=2
n + 1 n − 1
n
= 32 12 ·43
23· 54
34· · · NN −1
(N − 2)N −1 ·(N + 1)N (N − 1)N
= NN −1(N + 1)N
2((N − 1)!)2 = N2N +1 2(N !)2
1 + 1
N
N
= e2N +1
4π (1 + o(1)) where in the last step we used
N ! =√
2πN (N/e)N(1 + o(1)) and (1 + 1/N )N = e(1 + o(1)).
Now we consider another finite telescopic product
N
Y
n=2
n2− 1 n2
n2−1
=
N
Y
n=2
(n − 1)n2−1(n + 1)n2−1 n2(n2−1)
= 13· 33
26 ·28· 48
316 ·315· 515
430 · · ·(N − 1)N2−1· (N + 1)N2−1 N2(N2−1)
= ((N − 1)!)2· (N + 1)N2−1
NN2+2N −2 = ((N )!)2 N2N +1 ·
1 + 1
N
N2−1
= 2π
e2N · eN −12(1 + o(1)) = 2π
eN+12(1 + o(1)) where in the last step we used the Stirling approximation and
1 + 1
N
N2−1
= exp
N2− 1 1 N − 1
2N2 + o(1/N2)
= exp
N −1
2 + o(1)
= eN −12(1+o(1)).
Finally
N
Y
n=2
n2− 1 n2
2(n2−1) n + 1 n − 1
n!
=
N
Y
n=2
n2− 1 n2
n2−1!2
·
N
Y
n=2
n + 1 n − 1
n
= 4π2
e2N +1(1 + o(1)) ·e2N +1
4π (1 + o(1)) → π.