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Taking the logarithm the infinite product (which converges) becomes ∞ X n=2  −1 + (n2− 1) log  1 1 − 1/n2

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Problem 11299

(American Mathematical Monthly, Vol.114, June-July 2007) Proposed by P. Refolio (Spain).

Show that

Y

n=2

1 e

 n2 n2− 1

n2−1!

= e√e 2π .

Solution proposed by Roberto Tauraso, Dipartimento di Matematica, Universit`a di Roma “Tor Vergata”, via della Ricerca Scientifica, 00133 Roma, Italy.

Taking the logarithm the infinite product (which converges) becomes

X

n=2



−1 + (n2− 1) log

 1

1 − 1/n2



=

X

n=2

−1 + (n2− 1)

X

k=1

1 kn2k

!

=

X

n=2

−1 +

X

k=1

1 kn2k−2

X

k=1

1 kn2k

!

=

X

n=2

X

k=1

1 (k + 1)n2k

X

k=1

1 kn2k

!

=

X

k=1

ζ(2k) − 1 k + 1 −

X

k=1

ζ(2k) − 1 k Now the second series yields

X

k=1

ζ(2k) − 1

k =

X

n=2

X

k=1

1 kn2k =

X

n=2

log

 n2 n2− 1



= lim

N →∞log

N

Y

n=2

n2 (n − 1)(n + 1)

!

= lim

N →∞log

 2N N + 1



= log 2.

So it suffices to prove that

X

k=1

ζ(2k) − 1 k + 1 = 3

2− log π which is interesting by itself. Since the cotangent identity

cot x =

X

n=0

1 x − nπ. holds in the interval 0 < x < π, then

x2cot x − x + x2

x − π − x2

x + π = 2

X

n=2

x

x2− (nπ)2 = −2

X

n=2

x32 1 − (x/(nπ))2

= −2x

X

n=2

X

k=1

 x nπ

2k

= −2

X

k=1

x2k+1

π2k (ζ(2k) − 1).

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Therefore

X

k=1

ζ(2k) − 1

k + 1 = 2

π2 Z π

0

X

k=1

x2k+1

π2k (ζ(2k) − 1) dx

= − 1 π2

Z π 0



x2cot x − x − x2

x − π− x2 x + π

 dx

= 1

π2 Z π

0



x + x2 x + π



dx + 1 π2 lim

t→π

Z t 0

x2 x − π dx −

Z t 0

x2cot x dx



= log 2 + 1 π2 lim

t→π

 x2

2 + πx + π2log(π − x)

t 0

− π2log(π − t) − π2log 2 + o(1)

!

= 3

2− log π

where we used the following asymptotic estimate as t → π Z t

0

x2cot x dx = Z t

0

x2d(log(sin x)) =x2log(sin x))t

0− 2 Z t

0

x log(sin x) dx

= π2log((π − t)(1 + o(1))) − 2 Z t

0

x log(sin x) dx

= π2log(π − t) + π2log 2 + o(1)

and Z π

0

x log(sin x) dx = −π2 2 log 2.

The last integral can be evaluated in the following way Z π

0

x log(sin x) dx = Z π

0

(π − x) log(sin(π − x)) dx = π Z π

0

log(sin x) dx − Z π

0

x log(sin x) dx and therefore

Z π 0

x log(sin x) dx = π 2

Z π 0

log(sin x) dx = −π2 2 log 2 because

Z π 0

log(sin x) dx = 2 Z π/2

0

log(sin x) dx

= 2 Z π/2

0

log(sin(π/2 − x)) dx = 2 Z π/2

0

log(cos x) dx

= Z π/2

0

log(sin(2x)/2) dx = 1 2

Z π 0

log((sin x)/2) dx

= 1 2

Z π

0 log(sin x) dx −π 2log 2.



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